sanst, on 2018-September-26, 02:31, said:
Clear??? Not to me, anyway. Why wouldn’t RR bid 7♠ after the 1♠ without his own infraction?
Without the infraction, the brainless rabbit would not have dreamt of bidding 7
♠. If you polled 10 RRs, after a long and painstaking search for peers, then you would probably find that some of them would have bid 1NT anyway (12-14, partner), and the more savvy of them would have responded 2
♦. And we only require "might well have been different" to adjust.
12B1 states:
Damage exists when, because of an infraction, an innocent side obtains a table result less favourable than would have been the expectation had the infraction not occurred.
Note that it does not say "may exist", "might well exist" etc. It says "exists". Therefore there was damage here, and we adjust. Unless we think that the infraction did not caused the bad result. Clearly RR panicked as he managed to work out there was not a comparable call. But the non-offenders WERE damaged.
And 7NT could not be made. You have 12 tricks with spades 2-2 and QJ of diamonds in the hole, but West is guarding diamonds, East clubs, and the menaces are incorrectly positioned for the double squeeze, and at teams there would be no advantage in playing it anyway!
I prefer to give the lawmakers credit for stating things for a reason - barmar