When can you pass a forcing NT? Some rebids are difficult!
#1
Posted 2017-February-22, 10:55
#2
Posted 2017-February-22, 11:20
silvr bull, on 2017-February-22, 10:55, said:
The usual rebid in these situations is 2C but with such good hearts I'd be inclined to rebid 2H. I certainly wouldn't pass.
London UK
#3
Posted 2017-February-22, 11:52
- Flannery players are asking "why are you asking this question? It's an impossible situation; which is why we don't have it."
- ACBL Standard (to the point where it is an explicit exception to Alertability) is that with 4=5=2=2 and not enough strength to reverse, you bid 2♣.
- If you force me to not bid "standard", I'll look at AKQxx and say it's a 6-carder, and rebid 2♥. But with AKQ2 KQ642 42 T3, yeah, no.
- Pass comes about 7th in my options with this hand, just slightly behind sudden heart attack at the table.
#5
Posted 2017-February-22, 13:22
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#6
Posted 2017-February-22, 13:32
#7
Posted 2017-February-22, 15:00
Either 2C or 2H are ok here.
#9
Posted 2017-February-22, 16:01
Whenever I have a hand that would not accept any invitation and when I have no other clear place to play the partscore, then I pass.
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#10
Posted 2017-February-22, 16:28
MrAce, on 2017-February-22, 16:01, said:
Whenever I have a hand that would not accept any invitation and when I have no other clear place to play the partscore, then I pass.
For example, partner bids a forcing NT on Ax, Jxxx, Jxxx, AQJ after I open 1S planning to bid the "obvious" game based on my rebid, rather than bidding 2D and having me go ape with a diamond fit.
Of course, it's "semiforcing" by a passed hand since Drury takes care of the 3-card limit raises.
And I concur, you bid 2C or 2H with your actual hand. It's a 5-loser hand! Why on earth would you want to pass?
EDIT: The Kaplan-Rubens hand evaluator says the actual hand is worth 16.5 points.
Evaluation of the OP hand
Second EDIT: I hope I can convince the person who voted for PASS to change his/her mind.
#11
Posted 2017-February-22, 16:40
silvr bull, on 2017-February-22, 13:32, said:
#12
Posted 2017-February-22, 17:40
Nonetheless, not playing Flannery, the standard bid would be 2 ♣. Whatever partner does over that will probably be all right.
On a more general level, passing a forcing NT, usually shows a flattish absolute minimum hand with a bad trump suit. It doesn't come up very often. Something like ♠ AK6 ♥ 107542 ♦ QJ3 ♣ Q6.
I'll admit to having passed a forcing NT something like no more than half a dozen times in 40+ years (thousands of hands) after a Forcing NT response.
#13
Posted 2017-February-22, 23:41
#14
Posted 2017-February-23, 00:29
#15
Posted 2017-February-23, 02:02
If 1nt is unlimited a 4522 pattern is a problem hand which has to bid trough 2♣ or 2♥ if agreed on.
A possible solution for this rebid problem with a 100 % forcing 1nt is :
1♥ - 1♠
A : 0-3 card ♠ 6-11 HCP
B : 4+ card ♠ 11+ HCP game forcing
1♥ - 1nt
4-5 card ♠ 6-11 HCP
1♥ - 2♠
6+ card s 6-10 HCP
#16
Posted 2017-February-23, 02:47
When one of your opponents shows you his 2=5=3=3 hand with 20 HCPs.
On this hand, you even have two possibilities: 2♣ and 2♥. Why would you pass?
Rik
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#17
Posted 2017-February-23, 06:32
#18
Posted 2017-February-23, 10:55
Those people that want to pass with 11, 12, bad 13 (good 10?) 5M332s, fine; but you're playing a *semi-forcing* 1NT; you need to Announce it as such; and you've worked your system such that it's going to win more often than it loses. Fine.
Having said all of that, this hand is closer to a reverse than a bad flat opener; as I said, I rate dying higher than passing on this one.
#19
Posted 2017-February-23, 11:34