Disclosure grey area.
#1
Posted 2013-November-20, 00:55
Would you feel guilt if its a
1- Ruse.. to invite opps to lead D instead of something else.
2- A way to rightside the contract since spades wasnt grabbed, so 4H..4S and voila partner play the hand.
Personnally I will only make a delayed alert for case 2 because the inference are near impossible for the opps to catch. They are simply not used to see contract rightsided at the 4 level.
However in the ruse case I wont feel guilt because its IMO “just bridge” that any slam methods/bid have a deceptive aspect.
What do you think ?
For instance, he doesn't like being used as a human shield when we're being shot at.
I happen to think it's a very noble way to meet one's maker, especially for a guy like him.
Bottom line is we never let that difference of opinion interfere with anything."
#2
Posted 2013-November-20, 08:32
A very similar ruling has been given in the UK laws & ethics column re bidding Stayman without holding a four-card major, either because it's non-promissory or because P is planning to pass on something like 3352 and a low point count. Stayman was firmly described as only an asking bid. A hand making an asking bid is not required to meet any other requirements than having 13 cards.
#3
Posted 2013-November-20, 09:03
Jinksy, on 2013-November-20, 08:32, said:
While I broadly agree with this, there are problems. Most importantly, how can opps draw the inferences that are available if they don't know what the full range of responses to the asking bid are?
#4
Posted 2013-November-20, 10:30
#5
Posted 2013-November-20, 10:51
ask next just to leave opponents wondering if the bad 2nd was slam quits.
eg. ask trumps -> 2 missing(no slam) now ask Aces -> any missing/not -> quit at 4M.
even Q-bid as a lead-inhibit to get another lead into AQ.
#6
Posted 2013-November-21, 06:09
Jinksy, on 2013-November-20, 10:30, said:
The problem is a practical one rather than a theoretical one. Should players routinely protect themselves by asking about responses when told something is asking a specific question? (Do you do this?) Or should they be able to assume that the person asking the question wants to know the answer?
If you think the answer to a question about the meaning of an asking bid should in principle also include the responses, then you will fall foul of all the people who argue that the person answering the question should not be saying what their own bid in response to it will mean....
#7
Posted 2013-November-21, 06:38
In other words, you should not feel guilt in either case providing you give full disclosure rather than merely describing the minimum.
#8
Posted 2013-November-21, 18:33
Do I need to disclose merely what the bid asks for (not how I intend to abuse it)?
If I include different possibilities of how to abuse the bid does that in and of itself constitute misdirection?
Am I responsible for knowing all the different ways to abuse a bid before trying to use it??
IMHO disclosure means to inform the opponents what your bid means and any "systemic" not "logical"
meanings derived from your bid. That means if you disclose the fact that 4h asks specifically for the dia
K that is the end of the story for disclosure. If the opps decide you really had slam aspirations that is their
problem not yours. P opens a weak 2s and you have a hand which is just short of looking for slam at
favorable. If you bid 4s would you then be required to "disclose" that it is possible you have a hand just
short of slam potential??? I think not that should be a "logical" possibility the opps should be able to
figure out for themselves.
P at favorable opens 3c rho x and you hold x xxx xxxx Kxxxx the only question would seem to be how high
do you want to sacrifice is it possible p has say Ax xx xx Axxxxxx?? if so then we do not want to be in 7c
when 6c should be sufficient. While I know most partnerships abhor 2 aces for an opening preempt it is
hardly unheard of. If I were to bid 4n over the x (I really have zero intent on actually making a slam I am
merely trying to decide how high to sacrifice do I have to disclose that NO that is a "logical" possibility.
the 4n asks a specific question p is expected to answer that is all I need to explain. the fact that I have
studied a system more than my opponents and know how to manipulate it better than they is a just
reward for my effort. They are not specifically entitled to my knowledge of how the system can be used
only the question itself and any special "systemic" conclusions available to (both partner and myself)
Lawyers sheesh.
#9
Posted 2013-November-22, 02:57
gszes, on 2013-November-21, 18:33, said:
Of course not and I stated this in the first sentence of my post. However you are expected to disclose your partnership understandings and once this has come up or been discussed it is an understanding. The question of how to explain asking bids is one that comes up regularly in the law forums. What you should do in theory is to explain what your partner might hold for their call, hence "asks for exact shape, usually showing 5 spades or slam interest" or whatever. In practise most just give the first part. Most of the time that is fine but when the lack of full disclosure damages the opponents then you may be opening yourself up to an unfavourable ruling.
It is also my opinion, but not within the rules, that those who play unusual systems should go out of their way to explain secondary aspects of that system rather than seeking to obtain an advantage from the unfamiliarity. I further believe that if that were both done and enforced it would go some way to making such systems more acceptable to certain regulators and to players.
#10
Posted 2013-November-22, 13:52
-- Zelandakh
*** In my experience "What do you know from bids not chosen?" is met with "Those weren't bid"!!
Do I need to disclose merely what the bid asks for (not how I intend to abuse it)? -- gszes
*** Then every possible deviation in opening bids, preempts, overcalls by partner's judgment.
And thus every "style" (aggressive, conservative, obstructive) that could be this time.
Let alone I must guess what source opponents have for every treatment so I can warn them: not like "Jerry"
But as "Peter". Even which key-ask agreement as per which writer.
How far before this becomes preposterous?
#11
Posted 2013-November-23, 08:47
maybe not sound bridge but perfectly legal.
#12
Posted 2013-November-23, 10:28
For instance, he doesn't like being used as a human shield when we're being shot at.
I happen to think it's a very noble way to meet one's maker, especially for a guy like him.
Bottom line is we never let that difference of opinion interfere with anything."