I understand that a forcing bid asks P to bid something which will describe his hand further.Does a forcing bid also promise a rebid?
For example playing SAYC 1♠-2♥ and now if opener bids 2NT must responder bid at least once more?
Or playing 2/1, after opening 1♦ if opponent bids 2♥ and responder bids
2♠ forcing is responder promising one more bid?
Or playing precision,after 1♠-2♦-2♠ can responder pass?
What is the expert way?
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Forcing bids Does a forcing bid promise a rebid?
#1
Posted 2008-April-15, 08:15
Aniruddha
Do unto others as you would have others do unto you.
"Mediocrity knows nothing higher than itself, but talent instantly recognizes genius".
Do unto others as you would have others do unto you.
"Mediocrity knows nothing higher than itself, but talent instantly recognizes genius".
#3
Posted 2008-April-15, 09:51
zasanya, on Apr 15 2008, 09:15 AM, said:
For example playing SAYC 1♠-2♥ and now if opener bids 2NT must responder bid at least once more?
The SAYC document says 2 things, specifically, about a 2-over-1 response.
1. It is forcing.
2. It promises another bid.
So no, the concepts are not synonymous.
Still decidedly intermediate - don't take my guesses as authoritative.
"gwnn" said:
rule number 1 in efficient forum reading:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
#4
Posted 2008-April-18, 11:11
zasanya, on Apr 15 2008, 03:15 PM, said:
I understand that a forcing bid asks P to bid something which will describe his hand further.Does a forcing bid also promise a rebid?
In general, a forcing bid does NOT promise another bid.
You might agree specifically in some sequences that it does - for example, if you play 2/1 then responder has promised to keep bidding until game is reached.
#5
Posted 2008-April-18, 14:23
It all depends on how far the bid is forcing.
For example:
1 of a major - 1NT (forcing)
Opender cannot pass, but responder does not promise another bid.
1 of a major - 2NT (Jacoby)
2NT is game forcing - neither partner can pass until game is reached. For that matter, depending on the partnership agreement, the only two possible games that can be passed are 3NT and 4 of the major. In some partnerships, 3NT cannot be passed.
1 of a suit - 1 of a suit
In almost all systems, responder's bid is forcing one round. Opener may not pass, but responder does not promise a rebid.
Playing 2/1 game forcing, 1 of a major - 2 of a minor is GAME FORCING. Neither partner can pass until a game is reached.
There are many more examples.
For example:
1 of a major - 1NT (forcing)
Opender cannot pass, but responder does not promise another bid.
1 of a major - 2NT (Jacoby)
2NT is game forcing - neither partner can pass until game is reached. For that matter, depending on the partnership agreement, the only two possible games that can be passed are 3NT and 4 of the major. In some partnerships, 3NT cannot be passed.
1 of a suit - 1 of a suit
In almost all systems, responder's bid is forcing one round. Opener may not pass, but responder does not promise a rebid.
Playing 2/1 game forcing, 1 of a major - 2 of a minor is GAME FORCING. Neither partner can pass until a game is reached.
There are many more examples.
#6
Posted 2008-April-18, 15:26
Why bother with the examples? They are correct, but they are just demonstrating the same two principles over and over. A forcing bid doesn't promise a rebid, but a game-forcing bid does promise any amount of rebids until game is reached.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
#7
Posted 2008-April-18, 16:33
A bid that promises a rebid (unless p bids game) is sometimes called auto-forcing.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
#8
Posted 2008-April-19, 05:39
Hi,
a simple example may show you, that the answer
to your question is No.
People often dont realize that making a forcing bid
does not mean that one is strong.
You open 1NT, partner bids 2D, transfer.
Now the 2D transfer bid is forcing, although nobody
would explain it that way, but does the bid promises
another bid?
A forcing bid starts a bidding sequence, to describe a
certain hand one does hold or to extract a certain information
about the hand partner holds.
You should only ask abouth things you are interested in,
and answer the questons partner asks, because you should
also assume that partner does only ask about things he is
interested at.
With kind regards
Marlowe
a simple example may show you, that the answer
to your question is No.
People often dont realize that making a forcing bid
does not mean that one is strong.
You open 1NT, partner bids 2D, transfer.
Now the 2D transfer bid is forcing, although nobody
would explain it that way, but does the bid promises
another bid?
A forcing bid starts a bidding sequence, to describe a
certain hand one does hold or to extract a certain information
about the hand partner holds.
You should only ask abouth things you are interested in,
and answer the questons partner asks, because you should
also assume that partner does only ask about things he is
interested at.
With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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