sOUTH OPENED WITH 1 C. Opponent passed . What should N have responded? She passed and N made 4 C
response to 1 c What to respond
#1
Posted 2007-September-24, 04:11
sOUTH OPENED WITH 1 C. Opponent passed . What should N have responded? She passed and N made 4 C
#2
Posted 2007-September-24, 04:17
#3
Posted 2007-September-24, 04:20
Quote
#4
Posted 2007-September-24, 04:46
I disagree with 2 HEart: You have 19 HCPs, no ten, a singelton in pds suit, there are some clues why 1 Heart should be enough.
IfI can talk myself into 1 ♥, the bidding would be:
1♣ 1 ♦
1 ♥ 2 ♦
2 ♠ 3 ♦
pass
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
#5
Posted 2007-September-24, 04:47
With 6 D should I have bid them even If I only had 5HCP. Please explain
#6
Posted 2007-September-24, 04:49
navit, on Sep 24 2007, 12:47 PM, said:
I usually pass with less than 6 HCPs, but this one has all the points in the 6-card and ♦10 as a bonus. If opener has a balanced 18 points you often make 3NT.
#7
Posted 2007-September-24, 05:45
This assumes you dont play weak jump shifts.
If you do, bid 2D.
With kind regards
Marlowe
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#8
Posted 2007-September-24, 05:53
navit, on Sep 24 2007, 05:47 AM, said:
With 6 D should I have bid them even If I only had 5HCP. Please explain
First of all you have a reasonable 6 card suit,
and if you really have too, you can add two points
for the length to your HCP points, which will give you
7 points.
Bidding on achieves two things:
#1 You have a fair chance of improving
the partscore
It is usually better, if the long suit
of the weak hand is the trump suit
#2 Given the quality of your suit, you dont
mind playing 3NT, if partner holds a
strong bal. hand, because your side
may provide your side with 6 tricks,
just imagine, partner hold Kx or Qx in
the suit.
Exchange two diamond cards with a
club and heart card and passing is right.
If you remove only one diamond card,
bidding on is a mood point.
With kind regards
Marlowe
PS: You dont bid on, because you are afraid
of partner playing a 3-2 club fit, you bid on,
because you have a nice hand, a min. hand,
but still quite nice.
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#10
Posted 2007-September-24, 06:10
#11
Posted 2007-September-24, 06:32
I do not believe that anyone holding the South cards would stop short of game after a 1♦ response.
3NT is not a very good contract, but I have seen worse.
#12
Posted 2007-September-24, 11:33
If North's hand was xxx xx AQxx xxxx, everyone would respond 1D.
Now compare xxx xx AJ10xxx xx to xxx xx AQxx xxxx and which hand would you rather have as dummy for 3NT if you had 19 HCP with ♦Kxx?
So it is very correct to upgrade xxx xx AJ10xxx xx and treat it like it was 6-7 HCP.
#13
Posted 2007-September-24, 11:37
Do unto others as you would have others do unto you.
"Mediocrity knows nothing higher than itself, but talent instantly recognizes genius".
#14
Posted 2007-September-24, 11:42
navit, on Sep 24 2007, 05:11 AM, said:
sOUTH OPENED WITH 1 C. Opponent passed . What should N have responded? She passed and N made 4 C
Not only does this have an excellent chance of being a good score, but it will freak out the opponents. In a long match, or against regular opponents, passing out the 1 club will mean that next time LHO has a marginal hand, he may bid it rather than waiting. Offshape X's and weak 1NT overcalls are good things...for you.
#15
Posted 2007-September-24, 11:46
#16
Posted 2007-September-24, 11:55
George Carlin
#17
Posted 2007-September-24, 12:15
For me, 1♣-P-2♦ is intermediate (8-11 or so), so 1♦...2♦ is weaker, and this is just enough. I want to declare 2♦ oppoiste the most common hand pattern of a balanced minimum, and I'd also prefer 2♦ to most other contracts, except a 2♣ rebid, which I'd pass.
Opener reverses, so I now bid 2♠ as a weakness relay. When partner rebids 2NT, I have to use judgment to determine whether to pass or bid what I believe to be the more disciplined 3♣, which should be passed if Opener is also disciplined.
As Responder, however, it woukld have been nice on this hand to play 2NT as the weak relay, because I know that passing 3♣ is right, and I cannot be tempted by 2NT any more.
-P.J. Painter.
#18
Posted 2007-September-24, 12:26
kenrexford, on Sep 24 2007, 08:15 PM, said:
For me, 1♣-P-2♦ is intermediate (8-11 or so), so 1♦...2♦ is weaker, and this is just enough. I want to declare 2♦ oppoiste the most common hand pattern of a balanced minimum, and I'd also prefer 2♦ to most other contracts, except a 2♣ rebid, which I'd pass.
Opener reverses, so I now bid 2♠ as a weakness relay. When partner rebids 2NT, I have to use judgment to determine whether to pass or bid what I believe to be the more disciplined 3♣, which should be passed if Opener is also disciplined.
As Responder, however, it woukld have been nice on this hand to play 2NT as the weak relay, because I know that passing 3♣ is right, and I cannot be tempted by 2NT any more.
You don't play a jump reverse as GF Ken? - strange...
Harald
#19
Posted 2007-September-24, 12:28
Playing standard I'd bid 1♦.
Playing T-Walsh I'd bid 1♠.
Harald
#20
Posted 2007-September-24, 14:48
skaeran, on Sep 24 2007, 01:26 PM, said:
kenrexford, on Sep 24 2007, 08:15 PM, said:
For me, 1♣-P-2♦ is intermediate (8-11 or so), so 1♦...2♦ is weaker, and this is just enough. I want to declare 2♦ oppoiste the most common hand pattern of a balanced minimum, and I'd also prefer 2♦ to most other contracts, except a 2♣ rebid, which I'd pass.
Opener reverses, so I now bid 2♠ as a weakness relay. When partner rebids 2NT, I have to use judgment to determine whether to pass or bid what I believe to be the more disciplined 3♣, which should be passed if Opener is also disciplined.
As Responder, however, it woukld have been nice on this hand to play 2NT as the weak relay, because I know that passing 3♣ is right, and I cannot be tempted by 2NT any more.
You don't play a jump reverse as GF Ken? - strange...
In that specific sequence of a minor-response-jump reverse, the only two out spots are three of Opener's minor or three of Responder's suit.
-P.J. Painter.

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