Help
1D - (2C) - 2S - (P)
3D- -(P) - 3S
Is this forcing?
Compare with
1D-1S
2D-3S
I, and I think most people, play this as highly invitational but not completely forcing. Maybe the original auction, with the interference, is still the same?
Here is the hand that brought this to mind (I am S):
Ok, it makes 3NT with the spades 3-3 but no one was there and I am not worried about that. 4S is off 2 since a ruff allows them to take the AKQJ of spades on separate tricks, after the loss of a club. 4D makes, and 5D makes unless they start the defense with a diamond (and another D after the club goes to the ace). If diamonds are 3-1 with the long club hand having the short diamonds, it makes 5D.
Quite possibly after my 3D pard might worry that he is in grave danger of losing a club and three top spades in a spade contract, but this is not why I post. I realized that I am not sure if 3S is forcing or not. I would raise 3S to 4S on a stiff Q, but suppose I have a singleton spot. On the uncontested auction 1D-1S-2D-3S I would feel allowed to pass. But after pard bids 2S over (2C) and then 3S over my 3D I am not so sure I am allowed to pass.
As you can see from the hands we were not playing the 2S as a non-forcing free bid, it was a constructive bid, forcing for one round.
3NT is a miracle contract, we are not getting there. 4D would be great. 5D is fine as long as they can't or don't lead diamonds twice.
But the simple question is: Would 3S be forcing or passable? Of course it is a matter of partnership agreement, what isn't, but how would you play it and what do you regard as standard?
