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Walsh and 2/1 Responding with 5-5 in D and H

#1 User is offline   UdcaDenny 

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Posted 2015-September-10, 05:40

How do you respond with 5-5 in and with gameforcing values and with less after opener opens 1 and rebids 2 ? Me and my partner can not find that biddingsituation in Max Hardy:s books. He only write about opener rebidding 1NT after opening 1
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#2 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2015-September-10, 05:59

View PostUdcaDenny, on 2015-September-10, 05:40, said:

How do you respond with 5-5 in and with gameforcing values and with less after opener opens 1 and rebids 2 ? Me and my partner can not find that biddingsituation in Max Hardy:s books. He only write about opener rebidding 1NT after opening 1

You respond 1H and rebid 2D, as long as you have invitational or better values, because 2D is a one-round force. If you have a weak hand you have to choose between passing 2C or rebidding 2H.
Gordon Rainsford
London UK
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#3 User is offline   rhm 

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Posted 2015-September-10, 06:51

Wrong forum

Rainer Herrmann
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#4 User is offline   UdcaDenny 

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Posted 2015-September-10, 07:19

View Postrhm, on 2015-September-10, 06:51, said:

Wrong forum

Rainer Herrmann

Informative answer. Now I know
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#5 User is offline   UdcaDenny 

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Posted 2015-September-10, 07:24

View Postgordontd, on 2015-September-10, 05:59, said:

You respond 1H and rebid 2D, as long as you have invitational or better values, because 2D is a one-round force. If you have a weak hand you have to choose between passing 2C or rebidding 2H.

Would it be wrong with a gameforcing hand to first bid 1 and then reverse with 2 despite having 5 ? Could then rebid on the 3 level to show distribution. I know that Walsh says 2 only shows 4 cards. Also if you are very weak with 4 hearts and 5-6 diamonds do you still bid 2D ?
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#6 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2015-September-10, 07:33

View PostUdcaDenny, on 2015-September-10, 07:24, said:

Would it be wrong with a gameforcing hand to first bid 1 and then reverse with 2 despite having 5 ? Could then rebid on the 3 level to show distribution. I know that Walsh says 2 only shows 4 cards. Also if you are very weak with 4 hearts and 5-6 diamonds do you still bid 2D ?

1-1
2-3 is a splinter

1-1
2-2
3-3 is 56GF

1-1
2-3 is a matter of agreement. 5-5 GF, 5-5 invitational, and splinter, are common agreements.

1-1
2-2
2NT-3 is 5-5 invitational, unless such a hand would jump to 3 on the previous round (see above), in which case this is 5-5 GF.

With 4,5-6 you respond 1 and probably won't be able to show the diamonds if opener rebids 2. At least, that is the mainstream approach. I suppose it wouldn't be totally crazy to play
1-1
2-2
as long diamonds and nonforcing. Also, you may decide to respond 1 and just accept that you won't find the heart fit if opener is balanced. Obviously this is what you would do with seven diamonds, and you may decide to do it with six diamonds also under some circumstances.

If it goes
1-1
1NT-?
you need a way to show a weak hand with longer diamonds. 2 as a puppet to 2 is a common agreement.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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#7 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2015-September-10, 12:31

View PostUdcaDenny, on 2015-September-10, 05:40, said:

How do you respond with 5-5 in and with gameforcing values and with less after opener opens 1 and rebids 2 ? Me and my partner can not find that biddingsituation in Max Hardy:s books. He only write about opener rebidding 1NT after opening 1



With both you start with 1h. Keep in mind playing walsh and less than gf you may lose the diamond suit.


After opener rebids 2c you may rebid 2d as art/gf. Opener rebids in some natural fashion and responder may now bid 3d, natural and gf.

Again with less than gf you may lose the diamond suit, this is a possible cost of Walsh. For example say the bidding starts 1c=1h=2c and your hand is something close to:

xx..AQxxx..AJxxx...x I would rebid 2nt, not perfect. 2d would be art/gf....3d over 2c for me would be invite with say 4h and very long d suit. With less I may pass 2c.
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