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Forcing or not? After "semiforcing" 1NT

#1 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2015-July-20, 15:16


Playing 2/1, 1NT was "semiforcing", responder's direct 3♦ would have been natural and invitational.

Is 3♥ now forcing?
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#2 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2015-July-20, 15:48

I could be wrong, but I don't think so. Opener has shown a minimum (up to about 18) two suiter, and responder has shown a misfitting hand with diamonds. Or so it seems to me, anyway.
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#3 User is online   helene_t 

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Posted 2015-July-20, 16:08

If you play wjs so that 3d here is invitational you could play 3h as forcing but that is not standard.
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#4 User is offline   BRBanger 

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Posted 2015-July-21, 05:11

Assuming 2♥ is not forcing, I guess the question is: "Should 3♥ now be forcing?" I think not. Responder has shown a weak hand with long diamonds, and opener could be quite weak with 6-5 M's. Ok, I always take a pessimistic view. But with diamond support we might raise with:

AKxxx
Axxxx
Qxx
void

...or bid 5D, or even cue-bid the void!

1♠-1NT-2H-3D-4H is interesting too, because this must show some diamond support (opener's hand just got better). Maybe something like:

AQxxxx
Axxxx
Kx
void
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#5 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2015-July-21, 15:35

No. 2H wasn't forcing; 3D wasn't forcing.
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#6 User is offline   Jinksy 

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Posted 2015-July-22, 11:55

3♥ barely seems like it should even exist. 3♦ is presumably a hand with no game interest but arbitrarily many diamonds, so opener needs something pretty extreme to push for his second suit - it seems to me he should have 6-6 in the majors (conceivably 5-6 if he'd open 1♠ with that]).
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#7 User is offline   SteveMoe 

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Posted 2015-July-22, 17:37

The 3♥ rebid promsies 5-5 and 15-17 HCP. Responder bids accordingly.
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