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assign the blame

Poll: bad slam (17 member(s) have cast votes)

Who do you blame for this slam ?

  1. 100% to north (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  2. 100% to south (16 votes [94.12%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 94.12%

  3. more to north (1 votes [5.88%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 5.88%

  4. more to south (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  5. equally blamed (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

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#21 User is offline   steve2005 

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Posted 2013-November-29, 19:20

View PostFluffy, on 2013-November-25, 10:13, said:

the 2 bidder had 2 keycards and a useful side QJ, trying to put any blame on his side is ridicoulous.

Some of the above comments seem to suggest that having no club wastage is better than having it, I think their wording could be improved, we would rather have a 9 count with K than a 5 count without it.

like he said. any hand containing KQ trump cant be considered a min for slam purposes
Sarcasm is a state of mind
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#22 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2013-November-30, 07:50

South claim that north pass over 4 double should show stronger hand than he had.
North claim that his hand is not the worse hand (he doesnt have waste in club) and he is not showing more than this (he could cue bid if he had a very good hand).

*** Then *should* North's 4D mean "Diamond quacks, not worthless for slam"?
Thus he should bid 4D on the shown hand. **Or 4S with S:QJx(xx) having H:KQx support?**

If 3S is reserved as a control bid, doesn't that force H+S into 4C?
Thus that 4D bid above instead of 4H = quits?
How does opener untangle H+S, H+D, H+S+D, H-one suiter (w/wo 3xtops) and extra controls?

With the structure posted, ain't you boxed in --"guess if my stuff works" -- often? Especially this hand?
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