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How are your pre-empts doing?

#1 User is offline   Lord Molyb 

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Posted 2012-December-23, 10:51

You're playing with a regular partner, and you pick up:

IMPs
4 clubs is natural, showing a 4 card suit.
How will you bid?
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#2 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2012-December-23, 11:27

Is 4 forcing? Can partner have QJTxxx only? I'd like to be able to ask for KC but if I can't and partner cannot have such a bad suit I'll just bid 6

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#3 User is offline   Lord Molyb 

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Posted 2012-December-23, 11:34

Whether 4 is forcing is partnership agreement :)
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#4 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2012-December-23, 13:42

What is your preempting philosophy in this seat at this vul. If it's pretty classical, I'd have bid 4 kickback first time (I normally have the agreement that if you want to bid 4 to play you bid 3 then 4).

I think 4 should be forcing over 3-4, but it makes things very murky as to what 4 and 4N are.
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#5 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2012-December-23, 15:49

View PostLord Molyb, on 2012-December-23, 11:34, said:

Whether 4 is forcing is partnership agreement :)


Yes of course it is. You've said it's a regular partner, so why don't you tell us what the agreement is?
You've already imposed a meaning for the 4C bid that isn't the one I play, so clearly you must have had some discussions about continuations after a pre-empt.

(I play that 4C agrees spades, and I think that's a fairly common understanding)
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#6 User is offline   Lord Molyb 

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Posted 2012-December-23, 18:00

The agreement is 4 nonforcing.
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#7 User is offline   lycier 

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Posted 2012-December-23, 19:05

4 is not a new suit,so nonforcing.
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#8 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 09:46

View Postlycier, on 2012-December-23, 19:05, said:

4 is not a new suit,so nonforcing.

2 - 2 (positive);
2 - 3;
3 is not a new suit either. I suppose that is non-forcing too? We started with a new suit at the 3 level, expecting partner to bid game with basically any hand containing support. Whether a bid is forcing or not needs to be thought about within the context of the auction, not by some blind rule. Indeed, if 4 is non-forcing here then we appear to have all of.....zero(!) forcing bids available outside of 4 and 5NT...in a constructive auction. In return we cater nicely to the hand where we psyched 3 with a diamond fit and the opps are too bad to notice. Good tradeoff?
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#9 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 09:51

View PostZelandakh, on 2013-January-16, 09:46, said:

2 - 2 (positive);
2 - 3;
3 is not a new suit either. I suppose that is non-forcing too? We started with a new suit at the 3 level, expecting partner to bid game with basically any hand containing support. Whether a bid is forcing or not needs to be thought about within the context of the auction, not by some blind rule. Indeed, if 4 is non-forcing here then we appear to have all of.....zero(!) forcing bids available outside of 4 and 5NT...in a constructive auction. In return we cater nicely to the hand where we psyched 3 with a diamond fit and the opps are too bad to notice. Good tradeoff?


Stupid example although there may be better ones, many people play 2 as GF except 2-2/whichever is the bad one-2N so the auction is already GF.
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#10 User is offline   Siegmund 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 10:03

I would assume 4D is NF -- a lot of hands bid 3S here expecting to take 10 tricks in something, wanting it to be spades if possible and diamonds if not.

I will admit 6D is possible opposite some tip-top maximums but I can't see how I can justify bidding it. If partner has only one hole in trumps (KQJxxxx or similar) he won't have another working face card and I'll be needing 4-3 clubs + no early trump lead to kill the ruff + a spade finesse to make it.

At IMPs, 5D rates to be safe most the time. At MP I would rebid 4S, going down opposite a void, but sneaking 420 past 400 a bit more than half the time.
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#11 User is offline   neilkaz 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 10:15

View PostLord Molyb, on 2012-December-23, 18:00, said:

The agreement is 4 nonforcing.

Yuck !!

EDIT: I strongly think that on a sequence like this 4 is best used to continue the search for best game/slam rather than to stop on a dime.
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#12 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 10:45

View PostSiegmund, on 2013-January-16, 10:03, said:

I would assume 4D is NF -- a lot of hands bid 3S here expecting to take 10 tricks in something, wanting it to be spades if possible and diamonds if not.

I will admit 6D is possible opposite some tip-top maximums but I can't see how I can justify bidding it. If partner has only one hole in trumps (KQJxxxx or similar) he won't have another working face card and I'll be needing 4-3 clubs + no early trump lead to kill the ruff + a spade finesse to make it.

At IMPs, 5D rates to be safe most the time. At MP I would rebid 4S, going down opposite a void, but sneaking 420 past 400 a bit more than half the time.

You appear to have 3 side suit entries to dummy in diamonds, if they lead ace and another trump, a singleton spade in partner's hand may be all that's required. Even if partner is void there are still decent chances (3-3 or Kx either side).
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