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Jumping to 4 of a Major Declarer's rebid

#1 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2012-March-07, 06:43

Both red:

AK
AQT8xxx
Qx
AT

1-Pa-1NT*-2
???

Is 4 advisable here?

In general, on what should 1M-1NT-4M or 1-1-4be bid?

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#2 User is offline   Charlie Yu 

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Posted 2012-March-07, 07:24

I could bid 4M here with an ace less, so I would first cuebid 3 then 4.
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#3 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2012-March-07, 08:50

4 is fine. 3 is possible but I would bid that also with a monster with + since 3 is nonforcing. With this hand I have a nice, descriptive bid. So why not make it?
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#4 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2012-March-07, 11:52

4H is fine, slam is very unlikely.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

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#5 User is offline   flytoox 

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Posted 2012-March-07, 23:24

View PostCharlie Yu, on 2012-March-07, 07:24, said:

I could bid 4M here with an ace less, so I would first cuebid 3 then 4.

I think you overestimate this hand. 4H is enough, I would be happy to make it. Qx of Diamonds are really awful.
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#6 User is offline   Yu18772 

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Posted 2012-March-08, 23:37

About the general question - 1-1NT-4 and 1-1-4 are very different auctions. If the responder is unlimited (1) than jump to 4 shows a hand that was a little better than 4 opening, but not by much (lets say an A more). If the responder is limited (passed hand or 1-1NT-4) than it is the opener decision - basically saying "I dont see a slam opposite your bid" - and can have a very wide range of hands.
On this hand bid 3 if you think slam is a real possibility opposite some average 8-9 points (or if you can imagine perfect 6 points that would make the slam cold - I can't :)) or bid 4 if you think that slam is not something to aspire to. I would choose 4
Posted ImageYu
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