jmcw, on 2011-July-17, 11:06, said:
I play 12-14 with 1 partner of modest bridge ability. (he is uncomfortable with strong)
He insists on rebidding 2NT over a 1NT response with 15/17 and 3NT with 18/19 when a minor OR Major is opened, I do not like this and would hearitly support the other posters who suggest rebidding the better minor over a forcing NT.
Yeah, if you want to play forcing 1NT responses you need to be comfortable with treating 5332 in first instance as a 2-suiter. For that reason you can't play forcing 1NT in response to a minor suit. I suppose you could play a short club system where 1
♦-1NT is forcing but what's the point? The 1NT response is quite descriptive (with the negative inference from not making a 3
♣ WJS or IJS), so opener is in a good position to pass 1NT.
It is a disadvantage of WNT5cM that with 5M332 and 15-16 points, when it starts
1M-1NT
2m-2M
you pass with 15 and bid 2NT with 16. You'd rather have opened 1NT in the first place. But those who play French Standard or similar (where 1NT is 15-17 but denies a 5-card major) have the same problem.
If you don't have an agreement, you don't have an illegal agreement. Except in the ACBL, where apparently you can have an agreement even if you don't have one :) --- Blackshoe