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A general question: suppose you open 1NT, partner transfers to a Major and you superaccept. Responder now shows a specific shortness below 3NT. If opener bids 3NT after that, should this be a suggestion to play (despite the 9 card Major fit) or not?
A specific situation in a GF auction:
1♣ - 1NT (16+ any ; GF balanced -> system on)
2♦ - 2♠! (TRF 5+♥ ; not minimum with 4+♥ and not 4333)
2NT! - 3♣! (shortness ♦ or ♠ ; asking)
3♥! - 3NT? (0-1♠ ; ???)
(playing frivolous 3♠, 3NT might be a serious slam try with ♠ cue ; the alternative is suggestion to play with lost values in ♠)
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3NT after super accept
#1
- mmm Duvel
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Posted 2011-June-03, 01:38
"It may be rude to leave to go to the bathroom, but it's downright stupid to sit there and piss yourself" - blackshoe
#2
- Andy Bowles
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Posted 2011-June-03, 03:46
You're considering playing 3NT as natural when you have a 9-card major-suit fit and one of the hands has a singleton?
I think it would be more useful to play 3NT as asking for the jack of diamonds.
I think it would be more useful to play 3NT as asking for the jack of diamonds.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
#3
- mmm Duvel
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Posted 2011-June-04, 08:40
Me and partner had a disagreement in PB just wanted to check how sane I am. Thanks for the response and up-votes.
"It may be rude to leave to go to the bathroom, but it's downright stupid to sit there and piss yourself" - blackshoe
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