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bid_em_up, on Mar 14 2007, 01:19 PM, said:
jtfanclub, on Mar 14 2007, 12:32 PM, said:
FrancesHinden, on Mar 14 2007, 12:27 PM, said:
If partner rebids 3D/3H over a non-FG 2S I suppose you might argue you'd pass - but I bet you wouldn't.
I was thinking of:
1♦ (P) 1♥ (1♠)
2♣ (P) 2♠ (P)
3♣ (P) 3♥ (P)
3♠ (P) 4♦ (P)
(P) (P)
3♠ is seeking a stopper, of course. Maybe that's not forcing even in a FG auction.
In this sequence, partner should be 5-5 in the minors and again have very little wasted spade values.
Well, sure, because you don't open 1♦ with 4 diamonds and 5 clubs (or for that matter, 4-1-4-4). If you're me, and this auction almost guarantees exactly 4 diamonds, 5♦ looks less promising.
Of course, if 1 diamond followed by 2 clubs only promises 4, it also makes the 3♦ bid stronger than if the same acution promised 5 diamonds. Nonetheless, I have seen the error of my ways, and will bid 4th suit next time.