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One from last night

#1 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2006-August-06, 13:19

AK3...Q72....9753....KQ4

Assume you play 2/1 game force with the usual toys including a version of Jacoby 2nt.

1s=p=?

1) What is your bid and why?
2) Would you alert it?
3) Assuming you think your bid was not alertable but the opp stop bidding and ask you what your bid means, how do you explain it?
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#2 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2006-August-06, 13:37

This is a nasty hand for some flavors of 2/1... I've seen a lot of different ways to handle it.

Some players advocate a natural GF 2NT response, use 3 to show the Jacoby 2NT hand. Others would prefer using a conventional 3NT response showing 3 card support and a 4333 shape. Still others would start with a forcing NT and then rebid 3NT. Finally, some schools of 2/1 use a conventional 2 advance that shows either clubs or this sort of hand.

Absent any of those agreements, you're forced to be creative...

Personally, I'd bid clubs to establish a game force and then support Spades. The bid isn't alertable, however, if the opponents ask you should explain that the club "suit" could be as short as three cards.
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#3 User is offline   Winstonm 

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Posted 2006-August-06, 14:11

Some would bid 1N followed by 4S - not ideal. There's no real way to know how good this hand is until you hear a continuation from partner. If I were forced to make a bid, I'd bid 2N even if taken as Jacoby. The main point being, if you can't make a reasonable bid with a balanced game forcing hand something is wrong with the system.
"Injustice anywhere is a threat to justice everywhere."
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#4 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2006-August-06, 20:39

The purpose of alerting is to inform opponents that they might wish to ask questions about your agreements. The laws, and the principle of full disclosure, require you to explain what can be deduced about the hand by either partnership agreeement about the meaning of the call, or through partnership experience. You are not required to tell opponents what's actually in your hand.
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#5 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2006-August-06, 21:56

mike777, on Aug 6 2006, 02:19 PM, said:

AK3...Q72....9753....KQ4

Assume you play 2/1 game force with the usual toys including a version of Jacoby 2nt.

1s=p=?

1) What is your bid and why?
2) Would you alert it?
3) Assuming you think your bid was not alertable but the opp stop bidding and ask you what your bid means, how do you explain it?

Why not 2? It's a 4 card suit, it's game forcing, and hopefully they'll lead clubs now. Not sure if I'm overthinking or underthinking this.
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#6 User is offline   bid_em_up 

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Posted 2006-August-07, 08:12

3N.

13-15, specifically 4-3-3-3 without 4 trumps.

Yes, its alerted.

If asked, I explain the same way.
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#7 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2006-August-07, 10:13

If I have discussed with my partner how I deal with specifically this hand-type (balanced 3 trump raise to game), then I make whatever call we have agreed. That may or may not be alertable, depending on what it is.

If I haven't discussed it, I bid 2D. I would alert this in England as game forcing. If asked, I explain as "natural, game forcing".
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