The 1♦ opening is standard, promising 4+ diamonds;
My (East) 1♥ is a transfer overcall, showing spades and unlimited (upwardly) strength;
South's Double shows either 8+ hcp with 4 hearts or any 10+ hcp hand.
After having asked North whether South promises hearts with his Double or not, I decided to pass. South was disappointed, saying that I should have alerted my partner's Pass, precisely because it was not forcing. To my mind, the fact that West's Pass is not forcing is a matter of logics, not agreement. South intervention gave West the option of passing (which otherwise he would not have had, overcaller being unlimited, so I inferred that West didn't have spade support. Yes, he could have been without heart support too, but, given the auction, I judged that the probabilities were in favor of staying there, at level one. Now, my parter and I didn't discuss this particular sequence, but South contention was that they, i.e. the opponents, are anyway entitled to know whether they'll have another chance to speak.
This had been a friendly discussion among us, but I would anyway like to know if I should alert such passes in the future - without feeling silly while explaining that my pard's Pass is not forcing
Thank you for any enlightening comment.